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A Disclaimer
The words and concepts on this page are
those of Ramon Watkins, alias, Prophet Yahweh and are not endorsed by the
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Was Jesus A Homosexual?
- part 1 of a 3 part series
June 13, 2005
WAS JESUS A HOMOSEXUAL?
Part 2 of a 3 part series
Reveals Why Christian Religious Leaders In Every Major City, State, And Nation
On Earth Are Raping, Molesting, And Forcing Young Boys To Have Anal And Oral Sex
With Them
By
PROPHET YAHWEH
Seer of YAHWEH
Archenemy of The New Testament Gospels
......................................................................................
ALL SCRIPTURES USED IN THIS STUDY ARE FROM THE KING JAMES VERISON OF THE BIBLE
UNLESS OTHERWISE STATED
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Was Jesus Having A Homosexual Relationship With One Of His Disciples?
Table Of Contents:
1. Introduction
2. John 13:1, 34-35
3. John 13:4-5
4. John 13:12, 15
5. John 13:23-25
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1. Introduction
On this page, I will present the first round of scriptural examples that prove
that the New Testament Gospels suggests that our Messiah was a homosexual. Just
keep in mind, that I will be using the King James Verison of the Bible to do
this.
The King James Verison has been around since the year 1611. It has been the main
bible that people used for several centuries.
However, over the last 50 years, there has been an explosion of different
translations of the bible! The reason why is because of the type of things I am
revealing that certain religious organizations want to change.
Many of the translators of the newer version of the bible are removing or
re-writing the homosexual references, and other things they don’t like, so the
scriptures will read in the way they want. Even so, you can still see the
homosexuality attributed to Jesus, in some of them, but not as clearly.
Because of this, don’t be surprised when you tell people about some of the
verses I use and they tell you that I am a liar because those verses don’t read
like that in other non-King James versions of the bible they use.
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2. John 13:1, 34-35
I want to bring to your attention what appears to be an innocent statement made
concerning the Christian Jesus in the Gospel of John chapter 13, verse 1. It
states:
1. "...having loved his own which were in the world, he loved them until the
end."
Now, compare this statement with verses 34-35 of the same chapter. It states:
34. "A new commandment I give unto you, That ye love one another; as I have
loved you, that ye also love one another."
35. "By this shall all men know that ye are my disciples, if ye have love one to
another."
The unlearned mind will not recognize these statements for what they are.
However, enlightened individuals know that all people, since Adam, knew that
loving one another was a characteristic of all organizations that claim to be of
the Creator. They also know that since loving one another was already firmly
established as a habit by religious people, that it was unnecessary for our
Messiah to issue another commandment to do so, thus turning the 10 commandments
into 11.
Something is wrong with this reasoning. Because, it makes our Messiah look like
he was under the impression that when YAHWEH gave the 10 commandments, He failed
to realize that He should have given 11 of them.
Could this reasoning be referring to some other type of love? And, if so, what
type of love was it referring to?
Well, look closer at these verses, and you will see a high level suggestion
overlooked by most people.
When John 13:1, 34 says that our Messiah: "loved his own", exactly what does
this mean? Who is "his own?"
Most Christians would say that "his own" was everyone who accepts him, from his
disciples to those of us today. And, that Jesus was simply telling all
Christians to let their love for him be seen in their love for each other. Now,
this sounds so cute, but when you look closely at the words attributed to Jesus,
he was not referring to all Christians like most of them interpret John 13:34-35
to mean.
Who was he referring to as "his own"?
In verse 35, his own words lets us know exactly who he was referring to. In this
verse, he stated: "by this shall all men know that you are my DISCIPLES, if you
have love for one another."
Here we see that his words make it clear that he was referring to his
"disciples" as "his own" and not all Christians who believe in him!
Now, the questions arise:
1. What type of love was Jesus referring to that his disciples were to
demonstrate only to each other and not to Christians in general?
2. What type of love was Jesus referring to that was so important for his
disciples to have towards each other, that he had to issue another commandment
to make sure they did so?
3. What was the difference between the type of love Jesus commanded his
disciples to have towards each other, and the type of love he taught them to
have for people in general?
Once again, the answers to these questions are found in the words attributed to
Jesus himself.
When he said that his disciples were to "love one another; AS I HAVE LOVED YOU,
that ye also love one another", it’s clear that the type of love Jesus was
talking about was the same type he had when he loved them.
Now, the question arises:
How did Jesus love his disciples that they were to have towards each other?
As you continue reading, you will see the answer in the scriptures themselves,
and you will be shocked when you read them.
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3. John 13:4-5
John chapter 13 describes the events of the Passover dinner when Jesus washed
his disciples feet.
In verse 4-5, it states:
4. "He riseth from supper, and laid aside his garments; and took a towel, and
girded himself."
5. "After that he poureth water into a basin, and began to wash the disciples’
feet, and to wipe them with the towel wherewith he was girded."
The average Christian would not see anything wrong with these verses. To them,
Jesus was simply demonstrating an act of humility by washing his disciples’
feet.
But, what they don’t see is that when it said that our Messiah "laid aside his
garments," it means that he took off his clothes! And, without making a
distinction, this suggests that he took off his clothes before his disciples
eyes, as if while they watched.
If this is so, it was an improper thing for a man to do before other men,
especially a holy man before his disciples. Because, it disrespects the
brotherhood and shows a lack of judgement and consideration on the Messiah’s
part.
Also, when scriptures said that he "took a towel, and girded himself," this
suggests that the vast majority of his body was left uncovered. I am assuming
that he used the towel to wrap around his waist to cover his sexual organs. But,
even so, the rest of his body would have been naked or not covered. If he was
not completely naked, why would he wrap a towel around himself? Every time I
have witnessed a man or woman wrap a towel around themselves, it was because
they were completely naked!
Today, even in a health spa, men wear towels around their naked bodies except
for the brief moment they take a shower. Immediately thereafter, most of them
wrap themselves with a towel. However, the homosexuals or men of little
understanding, in the health spas, walk around completely naked as long as they
can. Moral and principled men find this utterly disgusting!
Now, let me bring your attention to when John 13:4-5 said that after Jesus
undressed, "he poureth water into a basin, and began to wash the disciples’
feet."
Just think, "a basin" is really not that big. One man can easily carry it. And,
a man does not have to take off his clothes to fill it up with water and wash a
person’s feet! For our Messiah to take off his clothes, before others, to fill
up a basin was totally unnecessary!
So, what was the real reason he took off his clothes before his disciples,
especially when they kept their clothes on to get their feet washed?
Verse 5 tells us that after he finished washing their feet, he wiped them dry
"with the towel wherewith he was girded." Now, if our Messiah wrapped the towel
around his waist to cover his sexual organs, then to use the towel to dry his
disciples’ feet suggests that he was now totally naked before them, and they
could see his sexual organs! There’s something wrong with this picture.
I wonder what was on the Messiah’s mind when he ended up completely naked with
his disciples able to see his penis, testicles, and the hair around them?
I wonder what his disciples thought when he ended up naked with his penis,
testicles, and the hair around them, before their eyes, while they were fully
clothed, as he was drying their feet.
I wonder what he thought they would think when they saw him naked with his penis
before them?
I wonder if the thoughts of Jesus having a small or large penis came across the
minds of any of his disciples when they saw it?
Regardless, let’s read on so we can see where this story ends.
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4. John 13:12, 15
12. "So after he had washed their feet, and had taken his garments, and was set
back down again, he said unto them, Know ye what I have done to you?
15. "For I have given you an example, that ye should do as I have done to you."
Based on this order to his disciples, they knew that they would have to take
turns getting naked, before each other. And, they would have to wash each
other’s feet with their penises in plain view. I am certain, that the disciples
with small penises wished that the other disciples did not have to see how small
their penises were.
This doesn’t seem right even to most Christians today. This is why when they
perform this rite today, many of them choose to disobey Jesus’ order and leave
their clothes on!
Men taking clothes off before each other is also wrong in the eyes of YAHWEH!
In Genesis 3:21, it states: "Unto Adam also and to his wife did YAHWEH make
coats of skins, and clothed them." From that point on, YAHWEH intended for Adam,
Eve, and all their descendants to be dressed before each other at all times
except when they were intimate with their mates.
Also, since Jesus is said to be of the high priest order (Hebrews 8:1, which
states: "...we have such a high priest, who is set on the right hand of the
throne of the Majesty in the heavens..."), he was to be very careful for his
nakedness not to be seen. This is based on YAHWEH’s laws concerning the
nakedness of the high priests found in Exodus 20:25-26. In these verses, it
states:
25. "And if thou wilt make me an altar of stone, thou shalt not build it of hewn
stone: for it thou lift up thy tool upon it, thou hast polluted it.
26. "Neither shalt thou go up by steps unto mine altar, that thy NAKEDNESS be
not discovered [seen] thereon."
Judging by these scriptures, we see that it is improper, in YAHWEH’s eyes, for
men to do anything, especially of a religious nature, whereby their nakedness is
seen.
Do you remember what our Messiah said in John 8:28-29?
28. "as my Father hath taught me, I speak those things"
29. "for I do always those things that please him."
Well, for someone to write that our Messiah opposed YAHWEH’s clothing laws by
instituting a religious decree ordering his disciples to get naked before each
other, for any reason, has to be a lie against our Messiah! Because, he would
have known that YAHWEH did not teach him that, and it would not have pleased
YAHWEH for him to go against His laws!
Now, the question arises:
Why did the authors of the Gospels portray our Messiah as taking his clothes
off, getting naked before them, ordering them to follow his example, and to do
the same with each other?
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5. John 13:23-25
23. "Now there was leaning on Jesus’ bosom one of his disciples, whom Jesus
loved."
24. "Simon Peter therefore beckoned to him, that he should ask who it should be
of whom he spake."
25. "He then lying on Jesus breast saith unto him, Lord, who is it?"
Take a close look at these verses. In them you see not only an act between men
which is improper but also unnatural!
We saw on Part 1 of this work, in the section: YAHWEH’s Laws Against
Homosexuality where it stated in Leviticus 20:13, that:
"13. If a man also lie with mankind as he lieth with a woman, both of them have
committed an abomination: they shall surely be put to death; their blood shall
be upon them."
We also saw, on the same page, that in Micah 7:5 it stated to:
"...keep the doors of thy mouth from her that lieth in they bosom."
And, judging by this verse, only a woman is allowed to lie in a man’s bosom and
not another man!
Now, what have we here? Our Messiah in clearly violating these laws, with one of
his disciples, by allowing him to lie in his bosom! Now, this is sin and evil!
What about the words attributed to our Messiah in John 8:28-29 when he said:
"as my Father hath taught me, I speak those things", and "I do always those
things that please him"?
Now, how in the world does he allowing another man to lie in his bosom please
YAHWEH? It does not please YAHWEH it displeases Him! This is the reason why He
gave these laws so men would not do such things!
So what’s going on here? Is our Messiah having a memory lapse? Or is this simply
evidence of demonic mistranslating I said happened with verses in the Gospels
suggesting that Jesus was a homosexual?
Now, we see that the words attributed to our Messiah: "as my Father hath taught
me, I speak those things", and "I do always those things that please him" are
nothing but lies!
Because, in these verses, he is clearly violating YAHWEH’s laws by letting a man
lie up against him as only a woman should do.
This shows our Messiah sinning against YAHWEH’s laws!
But, what about 1 Peter 2:22 which stated the our Messiah did not sin against
YAHWEH? ("Who did not sin, neither was guile [deceit] found in his mouth:")
This violation of YAHWEH’s laws shows that, according to the Christian Gospels,
our Messiah did sin by letting a man lie in his bosom! So, these writings can
not be true documents written by actual disciples of our Messiah. They would
never have portrayed our Messiah with a man between his arms as if he was having
some type of homosexual relationship with him! They would have chosen to die
first before writing such lies!
Now, let’s do a verse-by-verse break down of John 13:23-25.
23. "Now there was LEANING on Jesus’ bosom on of his disciples, whom Jesus
loved."
According to verse 23, one of the disciples was "leaning" on the "bosom" of
Jesus. The word "leaning" suggest that the disciple was in some kind of upright
position. The word "bosom" means the chest or breast of Jesus.
If a disciple was "leaning" on Jesus’ "bosom" chest, breast, the only way this
can happen is if he was in between Jesus’ arms!
Now, let us use our imagination to visualize the most likely positions these
verse suggest Jesus was in with his disciple:
1. Visualize both of them standing with one man "LEANING" on the other’s chest
while between his arms.
Does this seem right to you?
2. Visualize one man sitting in a chair, with the other man sitting on his lap
and "LEANING" on his chest while between his arms.
Does this seem right to you?
3. Visualize both men sitting on a flat surface, like a floor or bed, with one
of them sitting on the other man’s lap or between the other’s legs and "LEANING"
on the other’s chest while between his arms.
Does this seem right to you?
4. Visualize one man sitting in a chair with the other man standing between his
legs and "LEANING" on his chest while in between his arms.
Does this seem right to you?
Hey, it most certainly should not seem right to you! The reason why is because
this example results in the man’s sexual organs (who is "LEANING" on Jesus chest
while standing between his legs) being only inches away from Jesus mouth if
Jesus is sitting in a chair!
Regardless, how a person interprets these verses, about the disciple "leaning"
on Jesus chest, the fact remains that this is an intimate encounter we’re seeing
here!
And, as a result, these verses also suggests that:
1. the man who was intimate with Jesus was a homosexual playing the role of a
woman
2. that Jesus was a homosexual who was acting like his male lover was a woman
3. that both Jesus and his disciple were homosexuals who often had anal and oral
sex with each other
4. that the other disciples of Jesus were use to them having homosexual
relations while they watched because they did not react like they were not use
to their homosexuality
5. at least one or more of the other disciples had to wonder which one of them
would be the next one Jesus would want to penetrate anally or perform oral sex
on
6. that Jesus and all of the disciples were a bunch of sick dudes man!
This is unnatural! This is evil! This is perverted!
YAHWEH is against homosexuality! He destroyed Sodom and Gomorrah because of it!
And, now what have we here?
What we have are fraudulent Gospels that portray our Messiah as a homosexual who
had a man being intimate with him as if the man was a woman when he is not!
We saw how that in the same chapter, Jesus got naked with his disciples to the
point that his penis and testicles could be seen by them. And, now we see that,
afterwards, he willing had one of them "leaning" intimately between his arms
upon his chest. Normally, when this happens between two people, the one with the
person "leaning" upon his chest, between his arms, usually has at least on of
his arms around that person!
Now, let’s break down the following next verse and see what it suggests!
24. "Simon Peter therefore beckoned to him, that he should ask who it should be
of whom he spake."
Here in verse 24 of John chapter 13, we see where Simon Peter signaled to the
disciple "leaning" between Jesus’ arms upon his chest, obviously without Jesus
seeing him, for him to find out who he was talking about.
Now, what does this suggest?
Simon Peter must have felt that this disciple had a greater power, than him, at
finding out who Jesus was talking about or he would have asked Jesus himself.
So, he signaled to the disciple who was between Jesus arms, to find out who
Jesus was talking about. This suggests that this person had a strange power over
Jesus like a woman does with a man who loved her. Or was the power like that
which a feminine male homosexual has over a masculine male homosexual that is in
love with him? Regardless, it was sick and demented!
Just think about this!
Simon Peter was the man Jesus said he would build his church upon but he had to
ask the guy in Jesus arms to find out what he obviously felt he did not have the
power to do!
This is so very shocking to the enlightened mind!
Consider Matthew 16:15 - 19, which states:
15. He saith unto them, But whom say ye that I am?
16. And, Simon Peter answered and said, Thou art the Christ, the Son of the
living God.
17. And Jesus answered and said unto him, Blessed art thou, Simon Bar-jona: for
flesh and blood hath not received it unto thee, but my Father which is in
heaven.
18. And, I say also unto thee, that thou art Peter, and upon this rock I will
build my church: and the gates of hell shall not pervail against it.
19. And I will give unto thee the keys of the kingdom of heaven: and whatsoever
thou shalt bind on earth shall be bound in heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt
loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven.
Now, how in the world did the Messiah not know that he was going to commission
Peter with such power that whatever he decide on would be confirmed in heaven
and that his entire religion would rest on this man's shoulder?
The Messiah would have recognized who Peter was long before he commissioned him.
With this in consideration, how in the world did Jesus condition Peter to feel
that he did not have the power to get an answer that the boy leaning on his
chest could get?
This is absolutely amazing to me!
And, it appears that the writers of the gospels were deliberately trying to make
a subliminal statement.
It suggests that Jesus was so in love with this boy and that their relationship
with the boy was such that not even the disciple, that Jesus would have known he
was going to build his church upon, and give the power to make decisions that
heaven had to abide by, no matter what it was, did not have the power with Jesus
that the boy did!
Wow!
Wow!
I hate the person who wrote the fake, fraudulent gospel that lied and defamed
the character of our Messiah like that!
Now, consider where we left off in John chapter 13, which states:
25. "He then LYING on Jesus breast saith unto him, Lord, who is it?"
We saw, at first, that the disciple was "leaning" upright on Jesus chest. Now,
it says that he was "lying" on his breast!
This suggests that the intimacy involved became even more intimate!
This also suggests that after Simon Peter signaled him to find out who Jesus was
talking about, the disciple went to work on seducing Jesus, like a woman does a
man who she wants something from, and ended up on top of him or lying on him in
some similar way, as if for sex.
This suggests that they were upright in some way at first and then the boy end
up lying Jesus down and lying on top of him, because you can't lie on someone
unless you're on top of him.
Finally, this also suggests that the disciples were watching them all the time
the man was seducing Jesus!
And because of the seduction, Jesus did not hesitate to say who it was and
quickly gave up the information as if he was turned on by his boy's or young
man's sexual stimulation, when in verse 26 it states:
26. "Jesus answered, He it is to who I shall give sop, when I have dipped
it...."
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Now, after considering all of this, you should see that I am correct when I say
that the Gospels suggest Jesus as a homosexual!
But, hold on until you see Part 3.
Sincerely Yours In The Defense Of YAHWEH's Messiah,
Prophet Yahweh
Seer of Yahweh
We will post the comments of any who wish to do so on any
of these subjects here:
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Doctrines of Men - A Terrible Truth
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